Free AICP practice test: 60 questions with explanations, weighted to the exam outline
This free AICP (American Institute of Certified Planners) practice test gives you 60 sample questions across all nine exam domains, mixed in proportion to the current outline. Pick an answer, read why each option is right or wrong, and the plat map keeps your score by district.
Exam facts checked October 2026
Before you start
On exam day
170 questions
Seat time
3.5 hours
Format
1 best answer of 4
Scoring
Scaled, no published cut
This set
60 questions
AICP practice test: 60 sample questions
60 questions · all 9 domains · reasoning after every answer
Lot 01 · 01 of 60
Fundamental Planning Knowledge
0 answered · 0 correct
A developer proposes to fill part of a riverine floodplain to build a warehouse. Under standard NFIP floodplain management rules, in which area is such fill prohibited unless an engineering analysis shows it will cause no rise in the base flood elevation?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The floodway is the channel plus the adjacent land that must be kept free of encroachment so the base flood can pass without raising its elevation by more than a set amount (one foot under NFIP minimums), so fill there requires a 'no-rise' certification. The flood fringe is the tempting answer because it lies in the same 1% annual chance floodplain, but it may be filled or built on if structures meet the elevation standards. The 0.2% floodplain lies outside the Special Flood Hazard Area, and AO zones require elevation above the flood depth rather than a ban on fill.
AAO zones require new buildings to be elevated above the flood depth; they do not carry a no-rise ban on fill.
BThe 0.2% annual chance area lies outside the Special Flood Hazard Area, so no-rise rules do not apply there.
CThe flood fringe may be filled or built on if the structures meet the elevation standards; the no-rise test does not apply.
DCorrect: the regulatory floodway must stay clear so the base flood can pass, so any fill needs an engineered no-rise certification.
A council is deciding how to pay for a library expected to serve residents for 40 years. One member argues that people who will use it in future decades should share its cost. Which financing approach reflects this principle?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Under pay-as-you-use, long-term debt spreads repayment over the years the facility serves, so each generation of users pays its share (intergenerational equity). Pay-as-you-go is the tempting answer because it avoids interest, but it makes today's taxpayers pay for a building later residents will also use; saving a reserve in advance shifts the burden even earlier, and a grant does not address how the local share is spread over time.
AA reserve saved before construction puts the whole burden on taxpayers before anyone uses the building.
BPay-as-you-go avoids interest, but current taxpayers fund a building that residents will use for decades.
CCorrect: debt repaid over the facility's life spreads the cost across the generations who use it (pay-as-you-use).
DA state grant replaces local money, but it does not spread any local cost across future users.
Residents and a quarry operator dispute whether blasting is damaging nearby foundations, and each side distrusts the other's consultant. Which process BEST builds a shared factual basis?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
In joint fact-finding the parties agree on the questions, select the experts together and review methods and results jointly, so both sides own the findings that frame later negotiation. Dueling studies usually entrench each side's view, the operator's own data carry the distrust already present, and a petition documents perceptions rather than establishing cause.
ACompeting studies at a hearing usually harden positions, because each side simply discounts the other side's expert.
BThe operator's own compliance data come from the party residents already distrust, so they cannot build a shared basis.
CCorrect: when both sides frame the questions and choose the expert together, both own the findings.
DA petition records residents' perceptions of damage, but it cannot establish whether blasting is the cause.
Why does an affordable project serving households at 30% AMI typically need more layered subsidy sources than one serving 80% AMI?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Rents at 30% AMI produce little net operating income, so the project can carry only a small mortgage, and the remaining gap must be filled with grants, soft loans and other subsidies. Construction cost is about the same for any income level. Credit pricing is not set by the tenants' income tier, and LIHTC units can serve households well below 50% AMI; the limit is a ceiling, not a floor.
ALIHTC can serve households well below 50% AMI, because income limits are ceilings and deeper targeting is allowed.
BConstruction costs are about the same for any income tier; the difference comes from the rents the units collect.
CCorrect: very low rents generate little net operating income, so the project can carry only a small mortgage and needs more gap subsidy.
DCredit pricing depends on the market and the project, not on how deeply the units are targeted.
A city plans a new central public library that will serve all residents and charge no user fees. Which financing mechanism is MOST appropriate?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
General obligation bonds are backed by the city's full taxing power and suit facilities that benefit everyone and generate no revenue. Revenue bonds need a project income stream (such as water fees) to repay them; a special assessment charges only properties with a localized benefit; TIF depends on new development in a district and does not match a citywide facility.
ARevenue bonds are repaid from project income, and a fee-free library produces no income stream to pledge.
BA special assessment charges only nearby properties that receive a localized benefit, which does not fit a citywide library.
CCorrect: GO bonds are backed by the city's full taxing power, which fits a facility that benefits everyone and earns no revenue.
DTIF depends on new development raising values in a district, and that is not tied to a citywide public facility.
A county needs its official population as of July 1 of last year to distribute state revenue per capita. Which Census Bureau product should it use?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The Population Estimates Program produces the Bureau's official annual population estimates as of July 1, built from the last census plus births, deaths and migration, and the ACS weights its own results to these totals. ACS 1-year estimates are tempting because they are recent, but the ACS is designed for characteristics such as income and commuting, and the Bureau directs users to the Population Estimates Program for population totals. A census count is years out of date by mid-decade, and ACS 5-year data describe a multi-year period.
AA decennial count is fixed at April 1 of the census year, so by mid-decade it no longer reflects the current population.
BCorrect: the Population Estimates Program publishes the official July 1 population estimates that per-capita formulas rely on.
CACS 1-year data describe characteristics such as income; the Bureau sends users to PEP for official population totals.
DACS 5-year estimates pool five years of responses, so they describe a period rather than one July 1 date.
Four years after leaving a city where she managed a downtown redevelopment, a planner is hired by a developer to publicly advocate a significantly different approach to that same project. Does this violate the AICP Code?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The Code's switching-sides rule covers publicly advocating a position significantly different from one taken for a previous client or employer within the past three years; four years after leaving the city, the planner is outside that window. Even inside it, the rule never asked for the former employer's consent, only a good-faith finding of no detriment and full written disclosure.
AThe switching-sides rule has a time limit: it covers positions taken within the past three years.
BNo consent from the former employer is required; inside the window the Code asks for a no-detriment finding and written disclosure.
CCorrect: the rule reaches back only three years, so four years after leaving the planner is outside it.
DFive years is the wait before a revoked member may petition for reinstatement, not the switching-sides window.
Before work starts on a housing study, the director wants one document that formally authorizes the project, names the project manager and states its objectives, sponsor and high-level budget. Which document is this?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
A project charter formally launches a project: it authorizes it, identifies the sponsor and project manager, and records objectives, constraints and the high-level budget. The work breakdown structure breaks the deliverables into tasks, and a Gantt chart schedules those tasks. A detailed scope of work is developed later from the charter to define deliverables precisely.
AA Gantt chart schedules tasks over time; it does not authorize the project or name its sponsor.
BA work breakdown structure breaks deliverables into tasks after the project has been authorized.
CA detailed scope of work is developed later from the charter to define the deliverables precisely.
DCorrect: the project charter formally authorizes the project and records the sponsor, manager, objectives and high-level budget.
An AICP planner is asked to consult, on the side, for a developer whose applications are currently pending before the planner's own department. What does the AICP Code require?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Outside planning work, paid or unpaid, requires full written disclosure and the employer's written permission, AND it may never create an actual conflict of interest; a paying client with matters before your own department is one, so permission cannot cure it. The location of the consulting work and the absence of pay do not change the analysis.
ADisclosure and permission are needed for outside work, but they cannot cure work that creates an actual conflict of interest.
BUnpaid outside work falls under the same rule, so the absence of pay changes nothing.
CCorrect: the Code bars any outside work that creates an actual conflict, and serving an applicant before your own department is one.
DWhere the consulting work happens does not matter; the conflict comes from the applications pending before the planner's department.
Postwar mass-produced suburbs such as Levittown, New York (begun 1947) depended most directly on which federal policy?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
FHA mortgage insurance (from 1934) and the VA home loan guarantee (1944 GI Bill) made long-term, low-down-payment, fully amortized mortgages widely available, and builders like Levitt designed homes to FHA standards so buyers qualified; FHA underwriting also favored new, racially homogeneous suburbs. The Interstate program is tempting because freeways later fed suburban growth, but it began in 1956, after Levittown was built. Title I redevelopment grants targeted central cities, and Section 701 funded local planning.
AThe Interstate program began in 1956, nearly a decade after Levittown, so it cannot explain the early postwar boom.
BSection 701 (1954) paid for local planning studies; it did not finance housing construction or mortgages.
CCorrect: FHA insurance and VA guarantees made low-down-payment, long-term mortgages widely available, and builders designed homes to FHA standards.
DTitle I redevelopment grants (1949) went to clearing central-city land, not to building greenfield suburbs.
A city's water and sewer system is financed almost entirely by customer charges. In governmental accounting, which type of fund should account for it?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Enterprise funds are proprietary funds for business-type activities paid for mainly by user charges, such as water, sewer, parking or transit, so rates can be set to recover the full cost of service. A special revenue fund is the tempting near-miss, but it holds taxes or grants restricted to a purpose rather than fee-supported operations; the general fund covers tax-supported services, and a capital projects fund tracks construction money only.
AA capital projects fund tracks construction money for specific projects, not the ongoing operations of a utility.
BCorrect: enterprise funds account for business-type services paid for mainly by user charges, such as water and sewer.
CSpecial revenue funds hold taxes or grants restricted to a purpose, not operations supported by fees.
DThe general fund covers tax-supported services, and mixing a fee-based utility into it hides whether rates cover costs.
At the idea-generation stage of a visioning workshop, participants critique each suggestion as soon as it is offered, and the ideas dry up. Which ground rule should the facilitator reinforce?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Brainstorming separates generating ideas from evaluating them: judgment is deferred so people offer more, and more unusual, ideas, which are clustered and assessed in a later step. Allowing only 'feasible' ideas or voting as each is offered brings criticism right back into generation, and a one-idea limit cuts volume without removing the chilling effect.
ACorrect: brainstorming separates generating ideas from judging them, so criticism waits until the list is complete.
BA one-idea limit cuts the number of ideas without removing the instant criticism that is stopping people.
CVoting on each idea as it is offered brings evaluation straight back into the generation stage.
DAllowing only 'feasible' ideas is a filter that chills unusual suggestions before anyone hears them.
Residents of a new subdivision beside a long-established hog farm sue the farmer over odors. The farm uses accepted practices and has not expanded. Which law is the farmer MOST likely to rely on?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Every state has a right-to-farm law that shields established farms using generally accepted practices from nuisance suits brought by people who move in later, in effect codifying the 'coming to the nuisance' defense. The Farmland Protection Policy Act (1981) only requires federal agencies to consider effects on farmland. Agricultural zoning governs land use but does not bar a private nuisance claim, and the Clean Air Act grants no such immunity.
AThe Farmland Protection Policy Act only requires federal agencies to consider effects on farmland; it gives farmers no nuisance defense.
BCorrect: right-to-farm laws protect established farms using accepted practices from nuisance suits by people who move in later.
CAgricultural zoning permits the use, but it does not by itself bar a private nuisance claim from neighbors.
DThe Clean Air Act regulates emissions; it gives farms no immunity from odor nuisance suits.
Which landscaping condition of approval is MOST enforceable?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
An enforceable condition states what (size, species, spacing), when (a trigger such as certificate of occupancy) and for how long (maintenance and replacement). Without a timing trigger the city has no point at which to withhold approval; without size and spacing compliance cannot be measured; “where feasible” lets the developer decide whether to comply at all.
ACorrect: size, species, spacing, a timing trigger and a maintenance period make compliance measurable and enforceable.
B'Where feasible' lets the developer decide whether to comply, so the city has no firm standard.
CWithout a timing trigger the city has no point, such as occupancy, at which to withhold approval.
DWithout a tree size or spacing, the city cannot measure whether the frontage planting complies.
A random survey of 400 residents finds that 40% support a proposed zoning change. What is the 95% confidence interval for the share of all residents who support it?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The standard error is √(0.40 × 0.60 ÷ 400) ≈ 0.0245, and at 95% the margin is 1.96 × 0.0245 ≈ 4.8 points, giving 35.2% to 44.8%. 37.6% to 42.4% uses the standard error as the margin without multiplying by 1.96. Using z = 1.645 gives the 90% interval (36.0% to 44.0%), and z = 2.576 gives the 99% interval (33.7% to 46.3%).
AThis interval uses z = 1.645 on the 2.45-point standard error, so it is the 90% interval, not the 95% one.
BCorrect: SE = √(0.4 × 0.6 ÷ 400) ≈ 2.45 points, and 1.96 × 2.45 ≈ 4.8, giving 35.2% to 44.8%.
CThis interval uses z = 2.576, so it is the 99% interval and is wider than the 95% one requested.
DThis uses the standard error itself (2.4 points) as the margin and forgets to multiply it by 1.96.
The only planner in a small town qualified to review a complex subdivision has a family interest in it. The town wants the review done soon. What is the most appropriate way to proceed?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
When the conflicted planner is the only in-house reviewer, the usual solution is to bring in an independent qualified reviewer, such as a consultant or a neighboring jurisdiction's staff. The applicant is not the party whose consent the Code requires, verbal notice does not meet the written-disclosure rule, and having someone else sign the conflicted planner's work only hides who did it.
ACorrect: an independent reviewer, such as a consultant or a neighboring town's planner, removes the conflict and still meets the deadline.
BVerbal notice to the applicant does not meet the written-disclosure rule, and the applicant is not the party who consents.
CHaving the clerk sign the conflicted planner's work only hides who did the review.
DThe applicant cannot waive a conflict that affects the public and the employer; the Code requires written disclosure and employer consent.
A researcher finds a strong correlation between income and asthma rates using census tract data, but the correlation weakens sharply when the same data are aggregated to ZIP codes. This is an example of:
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The modifiable areal unit problem (MAUP) means statistical results change with the size (scale) or boundaries (zoning) of the units into which the same data are aggregated. The ecological fallacy is the tempting sibling, but it is the error of inferring individual behavior from group-level data, which the researcher has not done. Spatial autocorrelation means nearby values resemble each other, and selection bias concerns how cases were sampled.
ASpatial autocorrelation means nearby values resemble each other; it does not explain results changing with the unit of aggregation.
BThe ecological fallacy is inferring individual behavior from group data, and the researcher has not drawn any individual conclusion.
CSelection bias concerns how cases enter a sample; here the same data were simply regrouped.
DCorrect: results that shift when the same data are aggregated to different units illustrate the modifiable areal unit problem (scale effect).
A benefit-cost study of a proposed district energy system reports an internal rate of return (IRR) of 6%. The city evaluates projects at a 4% discount rate. What does this indicate?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The IRR is the discount rate at which NPV equals zero; at any lower rate, such as the city's 4%, future benefits are discounted less, so NPV is positive and the benefit-cost ratio exceeds 1.0. Reading a higher IRR as a negative NPV reverses the relationship, and an IRR is an annual rate of return, not a payback period in years.
AAt a rate below the IRR, NPV is positive, so the benefit-cost ratio is above 1.0, not below it.
BCorrect: IRR is the rate at which NPV is zero, so discounting at a lower 4% gives a positive NPV.
CThis reverses the relationship: an IRR above the discount rate means NPV is positive, not negative.
DAn IRR is an annual rate of return, not a payback period measured in years.
After a brainstorming session produces 40 ideas for a corridor, a facilitator wants to see quickly which ideas the group values most, without a debate. Which technique fits?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Dot voting (multi-voting) gives each participant a few stickers to place on favored ideas, producing a quick, visible ranking that narrows a long list for further discussion. A roll-call vote suits a formal body deciding a motion, not a workshop sorting ideas; a Delphi survey gathers expert judgment over several rounds, and open debate favors the most vocal participants.
AOpen debate is what the facilitator wants to avoid, and it favors the most vocal participants.
BCorrect: dot voting gives each person a few stickers, producing a quick, visible ranking of the posted ideas.
CA motion and roll-call vote suit a formal body deciding a question, not a workshop sorting 40 ideas.
DA Delphi survey gathers outside experts' views over several rounds, not this group's priorities in the room.
A community in the NFIP Community Rating System improves from Class 8 to Class 5. For a Special Flood Hazard Area policy whose premium before any CRS discount is $2,000, how much MORE will the owner save each year?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
In the Special Flood Hazard Area each CRS class is worth a 5% discount, so Class 8 earns 10% ($200) and Class 5 earns 25% ($500); the added saving is $500 − $200 = $300. $500 is the total Class 5 discount, not the change, and $200 is the old Class 8 discount. $600 wrongly assumes 10% per class.
ACorrect: each CRS class is worth 5% in the SFHA, so Class 8 saves $200 (10%) and Class 5 saves $500 (25%), a gain of $300.
B$500 is the total Class 5 discount, not the additional saving over Class 8.
C$200 is the discount the owner already had at Class 8, not the increase.
D$600 assumes 10% per class step; SFHA policies get 5% per class.
A city is building a logic model to evaluate its new down-payment assistance program. Which sequence is correct?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
A logic model runs from resources (inputs: funding, staff) to what the program does (activities: counseling, grants) to its direct products (outputs: number of loans closed) to the changes it seeks (outcomes: higher homeownership among target households). The common error is swapping outputs and outcomes: counting loans shows activity, not whether the homeownership gap closed.
ACorrect: resources (inputs) fund program work (activities), which produces direct products (outputs) that lead to changes (outcomes).
BThis swaps outputs and outcomes: loans closed are a product, while higher homeownership is the result sought.
COutputs cannot come before the activities that produce them.
DActivities need resources first, and outcomes follow outputs, not the reverse.
A member of an RFP selection committee worked with one of the bidding firms five years ago and has no current financial or business interest in it. What should the committee member do?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
A past working relationship can create an appearance of bias, so the member should disclose it and let the procurement officer decide whether any step is needed; with no financial interest, automatic withdrawal is not required. The Code's 3-year window concerns advocating a position different from one taken for a former client, not whether to disclose relationships. Asking the bidder about the conflict is an improper contact during an active procurement.
AAsking a bidder about a possible conflict is an improper contact during an active procurement.
BThree years is the AICP window for switching sides on an advocated position; it does not exempt relationships from disclosure.
CCorrect: the member should disclose the past relationship and let the procurement officer decide whether any step is needed.
DWith no current interest, automatic withdrawal is not required; disclosure lets the responsible official decide.
A proposed toll bridge's feasibility depends on assumed interest rates and traffic volumes. Which analysis BEST shows the financial risk if those assumptions are wrong?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Sensitivity analysis varies key inputs (rates, traffic) to see how much the outcome changes, revealing which assumptions the project's viability depends on. A benefit-cost analysis or fiscal impact analysis produces a result under ONE set of assumptions; a market study estimates demand but does not test how errors in it affect repayment.
AA market feasibility study estimates demand, but it does not test how errors in that estimate change the bridge's finances.
BBenefit-cost analysis gives a result under one set of assumptions; it does not show how the result changes when they are wrong.
CFiscal impact analysis estimates the effect on government revenues and costs under fixed assumptions, not the range of risk.
DCorrect: sensitivity analysis varies interest rates and traffic to show which assumptions the project's viability depends on.
A city enforces a maximum of two persons per bedroom in all dwellings, and challengers say it falls hardest on large immigrant families. Which Fair Housing Act provision is MOST relevant to the city's defense?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The Act exempts reasonable local restrictions on the maximum number of occupants permitted in a dwelling; City of Edmonds v. Oxford House (1995) explained that caps applying to all residents qualify, while rules defining who counts as a family do not. The exemption is not unlimited, since an unreasonable cap can still be challenged. The owner-sale, older-persons and religious exemptions are real provisions but apply to other situations.
AThe older-persons exemption covers 55+ or 62+ housing communities, not occupancy caps on all dwellings.
BThe religious-organization exemption lets such groups give preference to their members; it says nothing about occupancy limits.
CThe owner-sale exemption covers some private single-family sales by owners, not municipal regulations.
DCorrect: the Act exempts reasonable local limits on the maximum number of occupants, as Edmonds v. Oxford House (1995) explained.
A council member asks what weight APA's adopted policy guides (for example, on housing or climate) carry in the city's plan update. Which description is accurate?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
APA policy guides state the association's positions and recommendations on major issues; planners use them as professional guidance and APA uses them in its advocacy, but they carry no legal force. They are not rules of conduct under the AICP Code, which governs ethics rather than policy positions; they are not federal requirements, and model legislation such as APA's Growing Smart Legislative Guidebook is a separate product.
AModel legislation, such as APA's Growing Smart guidebook, is a separate product; policy guides are statements of position, not codes.
BThe AICP Code governs planners' ethical conduct; policy guides are not rules of conduct and cannot be enforced through it.
CCorrect: policy guides state APA's positions on issues; planners use them as guidance and APA uses them in advocacy, without legal force.
DPolicy guides are issued by a professional association, not a federal agency, so no funding depends on following them.
A regression residual plot shows a cone shape, with the spread of the errors widening as the fitted values increase. What does this indicate?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
A fan or cone pattern means the error variance is not constant, which is heteroskedasticity; the coefficients stay unbiased but their standard errors are wrong, so robust standard errors or a log transformation are used. Multicollinearity is correlation among predictors and is diagnosed with VIF, not residual shape. Autocorrelation appears as runs or patterns in time or space, and non-normality is checked with a Q-Q plot.
ASerial autocorrelation shows up as runs or patterns in residuals ordered by time or space, not as a widening cone.
BNon-normal errors are diagnosed with a Q-Q plot or histogram; a cone shape is about variance, not shape.
CMulticollinearity is correlation among the predictors, checked with VIF; it does not create a fan pattern in residuals.
DCorrect: a fan or cone of residuals means the error variance changes with the fitted values, which is heteroskedasticity.
A fiscal analysis shows a proposed redevelopment would raise tax revenue substantially, and the zoning code does not require any study of displacement. Staff consider leaving the displacement of about 40 lower-income households out of the report. What should the planner do?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The Code asks planners to give decision-makers adequate, clear and accurate information and to pay special attention to the effects of decisions on disadvantaged groups, so a known displacement impact belongs in the report. The absence of a code requirement does not make a material impact irrelevant, and raising it only on request or after the vote leaves the council deciding on a one-sided picture.
ACorrect: decision-makers need complete, accurate information, including known effects on lower-income households, alongside the fiscal findings.
BHolding back a known impact unless someone asks leaves the council deciding on a one-sided picture.
CThe lack of a code requirement does not make a material displacement impact irrelevant to the decision.
DReporting after the vote means the council decides without the information, so it cannot inform the decision.
A stakeholder using a screen reader cannot access a posted map. Which format should the planner provide as an alternative?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Screen readers read text, not pictures. A tagged PDF carries a structured text layer, and an HTML description states in words what the map shows; a flattened PDF, a raster image or a color-coded graphic gives the software nothing to read.
AA raster image is a picture of the map, so a screen reader has no text to read.
BFlattening a PDF strips the text and tag structure that a screen reader depends on.
CColor-coded vector graphics still convey meaning visually, so they give the screen reader nothing to read.
DCorrect: a tagged PDF or an HTML text description gives assistive software readable, structured content.
Citing visual clutter, a suburb bans all signs on residential property except 'for sale' signs and address numbers, which stops a resident from displaying a small antiwar sign in a front window. Under City of Ladue v. Gilleo (1994), the ban is:
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Ladue struck down the ban because signs on one's own home are an inexpensive and uniquely personal way to speak, and the ordinance left residents no adequate substitute; even assuming it was content-neutral, it foreclosed too much speech. The content-neutral aesthetics option is tempting because such rules usually survive intermediate review, but a near-total ban on a whole medium fails anyway. The Court rejected the claim that other channels were adequate, and strict scrutiny applies only to content-based rules such as those in Reed (2015).
AThe Court rejected the claim that other media were an adequate substitute for a sign at one's own home.
BStrict scrutiny applies to content-based rules such as the one in Reed (2015); the Court did not apply it to every sign rule.
CCorrect: Ladue struck the ban because home signs are a cheap, uniquely personal medium, and the city left no adequate substitute.
DEven if the ban is content-neutral and serves aesthetics, banning a whole medium of speech still fails.
A homeowner requests a 10-foot rear-setback variance because a granite outcrop, unique among lots in the subdivision, covers most of the buildable area. Which finding best supports granting it?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
A variance rests on a hardship caused by conditions peculiar to the property, such as topography or rock, not by the owner's own actions or financial wishes. Lack of neighbor objection is a common but irrelevant factor, since a variance must still meet the legal standard; greater profit is not a hardship, and ignorance of the rule when buying is not a basis for relief.
AWanting a larger, more profitable house is a financial preference, which is not a legal hardship.
BNot knowing the rule when buying does not create a hardship, and a self-created situation does not justify relief.
CNeighbor silence is not a legal standard; the variance must still meet the hardship test.
DCorrect: a variance rests on a hardship caused by a condition peculiar to the land, such as this unique rock outcrop.
A city wants to shape the design of new infill in a historic neighborhood without banning new construction. Which tool is MOST appropriate?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
A locally designated district with adopted design guidelines, applied through design review, lets new buildings proceed while requiring compatible scale, massing and materials. National Register listing is largely honorary for private owners and places no limits on privately funded work. A moratorium or easements on vacant lots would stop infill rather than guide it.
ANational Register listing is largely honorary for private owners and does not regulate privately funded construction.
BConservation easements on lots would prevent building on them rather than guide its design.
CCorrect: adopted design guidelines applied through district review let infill proceed while requiring compatible scale and materials.
DA moratorium stops new construction, which the city specifically wants to avoid.
A coalition negotiated a community benefits agreement (CBA) with a developer that promises local hiring and a job-training fund; the city is not a party. How can the commitments also be made enforceable by the city?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
A private CBA can be enforced only by the parties who signed it; when its terms are written into the development agreement (or conditions of approval the developer accepts), the city can enforce them through its contract and permitting powers. A resolution endorsing the CBA or a summary in a staff report expresses support but binds no one, and filing the document with the clerk does not make the city a party.
ACorrect: written into the development agreement, the commitments become obligations the city can enforce through its contract and permitting powers.
BA staff report summary informs the council but creates no obligation for the developer.
CFiling a private contract with the clerk does not make the city a party to it or give the city any power to enforce it.
DAn endorsing resolution expresses support, but it binds neither the developer nor anyone else.
In a multiparty negotiation over a waterfront plan, the mediator drafts one working document, circulates it for criticism and revises it repeatedly until the parties can accept it. What is this technique?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The single-text procedure (used at Camp David in 1978) has a neutral draft one text and invite criticism rather than commitment, revising until every party can accept it, which avoids a battle of rival drafts. Positional bargaining trades offers between fixed positions, final-offer arbitration has an arbitrator pick one side's last offer, and Delphi gathers anonymous expert judgments rather than negotiating an agreement.
AIn final-offer arbitration a third party picks one side's last offer; no shared text is drafted and revised.
BPositional bargaining trades offers between fixed positions rather than refining one shared draft.
CCorrect: in the single-text procedure a neutral drafts one document and revises it through criticism until all parties can accept it.
DDelphi collects anonymous expert judgments over rounds; it is not a way to negotiate an agreement among parties.
A parklet pilot that raised foot traffic on a dense downtown street is used to justify the same program on auto-oriented suburban corridors. Which type of validity is MOST at risk?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
External validity is whether a result generalizes to other settings, and a dense, walkable downtown differs sharply from auto-oriented corridors. Internal validity asks whether the pilot itself proved cause and effect on the downtown street, which is not in question here. Construct validity concerns whether foot traffic truly measures the intended outcome, and statistical conclusion validity concerns the statistics of the original test.
ACorrect: external validity asks whether a result carries over to other settings, and suburban corridors differ sharply from a dense downtown.
BConstruct validity asks whether foot traffic measures the intended outcome; transferring the result to a new setting is a different issue.
CInternal validity asks whether the pilot proved cause and effect on its own street, which is not the issue here.
DStatistical conclusion validity concerns the statistics of the original test, not whether the result transfers.
The AICP Ethics Officer has received a signed charge and, after follow-up questions, now has complete information about it. Within what period should the Ethics Officer make a preliminary determination on whether to proceed?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The Ethics Officer aims to make a preliminary determination, dismissing the charge or proceeding with it, within 30 days of receiving complete information. Fourteen days is the complainant's period to comment on the respondent's answer, and 90 days is the target for a formal advisory opinion; the Code sets no one-year window.
ACorrect: the Ethics Officer aims to decide whether to dismiss or proceed within 30 days of having complete information.
BThe Code sets no one-year window for this step; one year is a common guess borrowed from other complaint systems.
CFourteen days is the complainant's period to comment on the respondent's answer, not the time for a preliminary determination.
DNinety days is roughly the target for a formal advisory opinion from the Ethics Committee, which is a different procedure.
A developer argues that a town's 100-foot wetland buffer, stricter than anything required by the Clean Water Act, is preempted by federal law. Which principle BEST determines the outcome?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The Clean Water Act expressly preserves states' authority to adopt stricter standards, and local wetland rules adopted under state authority stand unless they actually conflict with federal law. Field preemption is the tempting argument, but Congress did not occupy the field. A Section 404 permit satisfies federal law without overriding local rules, and Sackett (2023) narrowed only federal jurisdiction over wetlands; it did not limit state or local protection.
ACorrect: the Clean Water Act preserves stricter state and local protection, and such rules fall only if they actually conflict with federal law.
BA Section 404 permit satisfies federal requirements, but it does not override local rules adopted under state authority.
CSackett narrowed federal jurisdiction over wetlands; it did not limit what states and localities may protect.
DCongress did not occupy the field of wetland regulation, so field preemption does not apply.
A city is drafting standards for a new mixed-use district. Which provision BEST combines predictable, objective review with flexibility for architectural design?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
A measurable standard such as a minimum glazing percentage can be checked objectively yet leaves materials and style to the designer. Mandating brick and trim is objective but dictates the whole design; “compatible with character” is vague and hard to defend, and unguided director discretion is the least predictable of all.
AUnguided director discretion is the least predictable approach and invites arbitrary decisions.
B'Compatible with character' is vague, so outcomes depend on who reviews the project and are hard to defend.
CMandating materials and trim is objective, but it dictates the architecture and leaves no flexibility.
DCorrect: a measurable glazing minimum can be checked objectively, yet style and materials are left to the designer.
A plan update has four tasks in strict sequence: Survey (2 weeks), Analysis (4), Design (6) and Reporting (2). Analysis slips 2 weeks, pushing completion from 14 to 16 weeks. Which technique recovers the time by starting Design before Analysis is finished?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Fast-tracking overlaps activities normally done in sequence, here starting Design on the parts of Analysis already complete, at the cost of some rework risk. Crashing also shortens the schedule, but by adding staff or money to critical tasks, not by overlapping them. Resource leveling smooths workloads and usually lengthens a schedule, and adding lag inserts delay.
AResource leveling smooths workloads across the schedule and usually lengthens it rather than recovering time.
BAdding lag inserts waiting time between tasks, which would delay completion further.
CCorrect: fast-tracking overlaps sequential tasks, here starting Design on finished parts of Analysis, at some risk of rework.
DCrashing shortens the schedule by adding staff or money to critical tasks, not by overlapping them.
During a staff meeting, a senior planner repeatedly interrupts a junior colleague from a cultural group that is underrepresented on the team. What should the meeting leader do IN THE MOMENT?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
An inclusive leader intervenes when it happens, returning the floor to the person interrupted, and follows up privately with the senior planner afterward. Asking the junior planner to be more assertive puts the burden on the person harmed; a blanket rule avoids naming the behavior; waiting months lets the pattern continue.
ACorrect: returning the floor to the interrupted planner on the spot stops the behavior, and a private follow-up with the senior planner comes later.
BAsking the person interrupted to push harder puts the burden on the one being harmed.
CA blanket rule for everyone avoids addressing the specific behavior that is happening in the room.
DWaiting until an annual review lets the pattern go on for months and fails the junior planner in the moment.
Residents ask for traffic calming on a street that is also a primary fire department response route. Which measure BEST reduces speeding while keeping emergency response times?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Speed cushions are humps with gaps sized for the wider wheelbase of fire trucks and ambulances, so emergency vehicles pass with little delay while cars must slow. Full-width speed humps slow emergency vehicles too, and fire departments often oppose them on response routes. All-way stops force every vehicle to stop and do little for mid-block speeds, and chicanes require large vehicles to weave.
AFull-width speed humps slow fire trucks too, and fire departments often oppose them on response routes.
BAll-way stops make every vehicle, including emergency ones, stop, and they do little for mid-block speeds.
CCorrect: speed cushions have gaps sized for the wide wheelbase of fire trucks, so cars slow while emergency vehicles pass.
DChicanes force large vehicles to weave through shifted lanes, which slows emergency response.
A council adopts a six-year capital improvement program (CIP). Which part of it is appropriated for spending in the coming fiscal year?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
A CIP is a multi-year schedule (typically five to six years) of ranked projects; only its first year is adopted as the capital budget and appropriated, and later years are revised and rolled forward in each annual update. Treating the whole program as appropriated is the common misconception; ranking alone commits no money, and locally funded projects are appropriated just like grant-funded ones.
AOnly the first year is appropriated; the later years are a plan that is revised in each annual update.
BRanking sets priority within the program, but it does not appropriate a project's full cost.
CLocally funded projects are appropriated in the capital budget just as grant-funded ones are.
DCorrect: the CIP's first year is adopted as the capital budget and appropriated, and the rest rolls forward.
A council member privately asks the planning director for a detailed memo analyzing a proposed parking policy that will soon come before council. What is the BEST practice?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Staff serve the council as a body, so substantive analysis prepared for one member on a pending item is shared with all members (often through the manager), keeping everyone equally informed and avoiding any appearance of favoritism. Giving it only to the requester creates an information advantage, refusing withholds legitimate analysis, and staff analysis should inform members rather than tell them how to vote.
ARefusing withholds legitimate analysis that the whole council will need for the pending decision.
BCorrect: staff serve the council as a body, so analysis on a pending item goes to every member.
CStaff analysis should inform members' judgment, not tell them how to vote.
DGiving the memo only to the requester creates an information advantage and an appearance of favoritism.
A civic center plan with a central mall flanked by neoclassical public buildings reflects a movement launched by which event?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The City Beautiful movement grew out of the 'White City' of the 1893 World's Columbian Exposition, directed by Daniel Burnham, whose unified neoclassical buildings inspired civic centers and malls across the country. The 1909 National Conference on City Planning is the tempting choice, but by then the profession was already turning toward the City Efficient. The 1916 zoning resolution launched comprehensive zoning, not civic design.
AThe 1916 resolution launched comprehensive zoning, a regulatory tool rather than a civic design movement.
BCorrect: the 'White City' of the 1893 Columbian Exposition, directed by Burnham, launched the City Beautiful movement.
CBy 1909 the profession was already shifting toward the City Efficient, so the conference did not launch the movement.
DThe 1876 Centennial celebrated industry and had no unified neoclassical plan that sparked a civic design movement.
A draft ordinance lets the planning director reduce setbacks by up to 50% 'to preserve environmental features.' Which addition best prevents arbitrary use of this flexibility?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Stated criteria (which features qualify, what must be shown) plus written findings tie each decision to the rule and create a record for review, which is what prevents arbitrariness. A lower cap shrinks the effect but not the discretion; removing the option defeats its purpose, and a neighbor-consent requirement hands the decision to private parties, which courts have struck down as an unlawful delegation.
ACorrect: stated criteria and written findings tie each reduction to the rule and leave a record that can be reviewed.
BRemoving the administrative option defeats the goal of flexibly protecting environmental features.
CA neighbor-consent requirement hands a public decision to private parties, which courts have treated as an unlawful delegation.
DA lower cap shrinks how much can be reduced, but the decision to reduce stays just as unguided.
Retail sales rose 12% on corridors that received new bike lanes. The city had picked those corridors because they were already gaining residents and new businesses. What is the main threat to concluding that the lanes caused the increase?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The growth that led the city to choose these corridors also drives retail sales, so the lanes' effect is confounded with it; a comparison with similar corridors without lanes (difference-in-differences) is needed. The ecological fallacy is inferring individual behavior from area data, which is not the claim here. Low power makes a study miss a real effect rather than invent one, and random measurement error would not create a systematic 12% gain.
ARandom measurement error adds noise; it would not produce a systematic 12% gain on the chosen corridors.
BLow power makes a study miss a real effect; it does not produce an apparent effect that is spurious.
CCorrect: the growth that led the city to choose these corridors also raises sales, so the lanes' effect is confounded with it.
DThe ecological fallacy is inferring individual behavior from area data, and no such inference is made here.
An AICP member ignores the Ethics Officer's request for information about a complaint the member considers frivolous. How is this treated under the Code?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The Rules require members to cooperate with the Ethics Officer and Committee, so refusing to respond is a separate violation regardless of whether the underlying charge has merit. Explaining why the charge is frivolous is exactly what the response is for. The duty does not depend on the outcome of the original charge.
ACorrect: the Rules require cooperation with the Ethics Officer, so refusing to respond is a separate violation whatever the charge's merit.
BMembers may consult counsel, but the duty to cooperate remains, and silence is still a failure to cooperate.
CA member who thinks a charge is frivolous should say so in the response, which is what the request is for.
DThe duty to cooperate stands on its own and does not depend on whether the original charge is upheld.
In a low-income urban census tract, 45% of residents live about 1.4 miles from the nearest supermarket. Under the USDA's original low-access (food desert) measure, how is the tract classified?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The USDA's original measure treats an urban tract as low access when at least 500 people or 33% of residents live more than 1 mile from a supermarket, so 45% at 1.4 miles qualifies. The 10-mile distance is the rural threshold. The share needed is one-third, not one-half, and vehicle availability is used in separate, alternative measures rather than the basic one.
AThe share required is one-third of residents (or 500 people), not more than half.
BTen miles is the rural threshold; urban tracts use 1 mile.
CVehicle availability appears in separate alternative measures, not in the original basic definition.
DCorrect: an urban tract is low access if 500 people or 33% live over 1 mile away, and 45% at 1.4 miles qualifies.
A draft condition of approval states: “The developer shall encourage future residents to use public transit.” Which revision BEST converts it into an enforceable mitigation measure?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
An enforceable measure states a concrete action whose performance can be verified, such as funding passes for every unit for a set period. A 10% trip target sounds measurable, but “strive” imposes no duty and no action; leasing materials only restates “encourage”; a survey monitors travel but mitigates nothing.
ALeasing materials only restate 'encourage', so the condition sets no verifiable duty.
BCorrect: funding passes for every unit for a set period is a concrete action whose performance the city can verify.
C'Strive to' sets a goal without a duty or an action, so the 10% target cannot be enforced.
DAn annual survey monitors travel behavior but does nothing to reduce trips.
A planner's map of ACS poverty rates by block group will be shown at a public meeting, and several estimates have very large margins of error. What is the BEST way to handle them on the map?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Marking low-reliability estimates (for example hatching areas with a high coefficient of variation) lets viewers see the pattern while knowing which values not to lean on, and a note explains why. Dropping the uncertainty invites residents to treat noisy numbers as fact, showing only the highest rates hides context and may spotlight the least reliable values, and rounding does nothing about sampling error.
AShowing only the highest rates hides context and may spotlight the least reliable estimates.
BHiding the margins of error invites residents to treat noisy estimates as hard fact.
CRounding changes how precise the numbers look, but it does nothing about sampling error.
DCorrect: hatching low-reliability values with an explanatory note keeps the pattern visible and flags which numbers not to lean on.
Which tower-in-the-park public housing project, whose demolition began in 1972, became a widely cited symbol of the failure of this modernist design approach?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Pruitt-Igoe (designed by Minoru Yamasaki, opened in the mid-1950s) began to be demolished in 1972, which critic Charles Jencks called the day modern architecture died. Cabrini-Green is the tempting choice because it also became a symbol of failed high-rise public housing, but its towers came down between 1995 and 2011. Stuyvesant Town is a middle-income tower-in-the-park complex still standing, and Radburn is a low-rise garden community.
ACorrect: Pruitt-Igoe's demolition began in 1972, a moment Charles Jencks called the death of modern architecture.
BStuyvesant Town is a middle-income tower-in-the-park complex that is still standing and occupied.
CCabrini-Green also became a symbol of failed high-rise housing, but its towers were demolished between 1995 and 2011.
DRadburn (1929) is a low-rise garden community built around superblocks, not a tower-in-the-park project.
To adapt to sea level rise, a coastal city requires new homes in vulnerable areas to be elevated on piles above projected flood levels and built with flood-resistant materials. Which adaptation strategy is this?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Accommodation keeps people in place but changes how buildings and land are used so they can tolerate flooding, for example by elevating structures. Protection defends the shoreline with seawalls, levees or beach nourishment; managed retreat moves development away through buyouts or rolling setbacks; mitigation, in climate terms, means cutting greenhouse gas emissions rather than adapting to their effects.
AProtection defends the shoreline with seawalls, levees or beach nourishment, not by changing the buildings themselves.
BIn climate terms, mitigation means cutting greenhouse gas emissions, not adapting buildings to flooding.
CManaged retreat moves development away from hazard areas through buyouts or rolling setbacks.
DCorrect: accommodation keeps people in place but adapts buildings, for example by elevating them, so they can tolerate flooding.
At the midpoint of a plan update, the planned value of work scheduled to date is $60,000, the earned value of work actually completed is $45,000 and actual cost is $50,000. What is the schedule performance index (SPI), and what does it show?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
SPI = earned value ÷ planned value = $45,000 ÷ $60,000 = 0.75, so only three-quarters of the scheduled work is done. 0.90 is the cost performance index (earned value ÷ actual cost), which measures cost efficiency, not schedule. 1.33 inverts the ratio and wrongly signals the project is ahead, and 0.83 divides actual cost by planned value, which mixes spending with progress.
A0.83 divides actual cost by planned value, which mixes spending with progress and is not a standard index.
BCorrect: SPI = earned value ÷ planned value = 45,000 ÷ 60,000 = 0.75, so the project is behind schedule.
C1.33 inverts the ratio (planned ÷ earned) and wrongly signals that the work is ahead of schedule.
D0.90 is the cost performance index (earned value ÷ actual cost), which measures cost efficiency, not schedule.
A hearing on a controversial shelter is expected to draw a large, angry crowd. As planning director, what is the BEST preparation?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Agreeing clear, fair rules in advance (sign-up, time limits, order of speakers) and announcing them lets everyone be heard and gives the chair a neutral basis for keeping order. Limiting input to writing restricts participation on a matter people care about; scheduling it late to thin the crowd is manipulation; briefing one side undermines impartiality.
ARestricting input to writing limits participation on an issue people care deeply about.
BBriefing only supporters undermines the department's impartiality.
CScheduling the item late to thin the crowd is manipulation that erodes public trust.
DCorrect: sign-up and time rules agreed with the chair and announced in advance let everyone speak and give a neutral basis for order.
Across 200 neighborhoods, the correlation between residential density and household vehicle miles traveled (VMT) is r = −0.70. Which interpretation is most accurate?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The negative correlation indicates that neighborhoods with greater residential density tend to have lower household VMT, and the magnitude of 0.70 indicates a fairly strong association. However, correlation alone does not establish that density causes lower VMT or indicate a specific percentage reduction.
ACorrelation does not establish causation, and r = −0.70 is not a 70% reduction in anything.
BCorrect: r = −0.70 is a fairly strong inverse association, but correlation alone does not show that density causes lower VMT.
CVariance explained is r², about 49%, not 30%, and it is not 'exactly' anything causal.
DAn r of −0.70 is far from zero, so the variables are clearly related.
An AICP member's certification was automatically revoked after a bribery conviction. An appeals court later overturns the conviction. What happens to the certification?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Automatic revocation rests on the conviction itself, so when the conviction is overturned the certification is reinstated. The five-year waiting period applies to petitions after a revocation that stands, and retaking the exam is the path after a long CM lapse, not after a reversed conviction.
ARetaking the exam is the path after a long lapse in CM credits, not after a reversed conviction.
BCorrect: automatic revocation rests on the conviction, so certification is reinstated when the conviction is overturned.
CThe Code expressly provides reinstatement when the conviction that triggered revocation is overturned.
DFive years is the wait before petitioning after a revocation that stands, not after a conviction is overturned.
A city plans accessibility upgrades to its National Register–listed city hall, and a ramp at the main entrance would damage the historic facade. Under the ADA provisions for qualified historic properties, what must the city do before using the alternative minimum requirements?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
The ADA Standards allow alternative minimums (for example, one accessible public entrance that is not the main one) only when the entity, after consulting the SHPO, determines that full compliance would threaten or destroy the property's significance. The Access Board writes the accessibility guidelines but does not grant building-by-building waivers. A zoning variance cannot excuse compliance with federal civil rights law, and no Justice Department approval is required.
ANo Justice Department approval is required; the determination follows SHPO consultation.
BA zoning variance cannot excuse compliance with federal civil rights law.
CThe Access Board writes the accessibility guidelines, but it does not issue waivers for individual buildings.
DCorrect: the alternative minimums apply only after consulting the SHPO and finding that full compliance would threaten the property's significance.
A $10 million facility can be financed now with bonds whose total repayment (principal plus interest) is $14.5 million, or built with cash in 5 years if construction costs rise 6% a year compounded. In nominal dollars, which is cheaper, and by about how much?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Delayed cost = $10M × 1.06^5 ≈ $13.4M, about $1.1M less than the $14.5M bond repayment. $4.5M ignores construction inflation; $1.5M uses simple inflation (30%) instead of compounding; reversing the sign picks the more expensive option. The saving must still be weighed against five years without the facility.
AThe bond option repays $14.5M, more than the inflated $13.4M cash cost, so bonds are the more expensive choice.
BCorrect: $10M × 1.06^5 ≈ $13.4M, about $1.1M less than the $14.5M bond repayment.
C$1.5M comes from simple 30% inflation ($13M) instead of compounding at 6% a year.
D$4.5M ignores construction inflation and compares the bonds with today's $10M cost.
A planner must explain to residents that a hazard has a 5 in 100 chance of affecting a given home over the next decade. Which graphic makes this probability easiest to grasp?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Icon arrays show risk as a frequency ('5 out of 100 homes'), which people read more accurately than percentages or abstract shapes, and they show the unaffected homes as well as the affected ones. A thin pie slice is hard to judge, annual bars force viewers to accumulate the risk themselves, and an odds table asks lay readers to interpret numbers without a picture.
AA table of odds asks lay readers to interpret numbers without any visual picture of the risk.
BCorrect: an icon array shows the risk as a frequency, 5 homes out of 100, which people read more accurately than percentages.
CA thin pie slice is hard to judge by eye, and pie charts invite poor comparisons.
DAnnual bars make viewers add up a decade of risk themselves, which most people do poorly.
In The Just City (2010), Susan Fainstein proposed judging urban policies against which three criteria?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Fainstein argued that urban policy should be judged by its effects on democracy, diversity and equity, with equity given priority when the three conflict. The 'three Es' of environment, economy and equity are the tempting choice, but they come from sustainability frameworks such as Campbell's planner's triangle. Diversity, interdependence and authentic dialogue are Innes and Booher's conditions for collaborative rationality, and efficiency, effectiveness and equity is a public administration triad.
ACorrect: Fainstein's just city is judged by democracy, diversity and equity, with equity given priority when they conflict.
BEnvironment, economy and equity are the sustainability 'three Es' of Campbell's planner's triangle, not Fainstein's criteria.
CEfficiency, effectiveness and equity is a public administration triad, not Fainstein's framework.
DDiversity, interdependence and authentic dialogue are Innes and Booher's conditions for collaborative rationality.
A unit must be affordable to households at 60% of area median income (AMI). AMI for the household size is $80,000, affordable housing cost is 30% of income, and the utility allowance is $150 a month. What is the maximum monthly contract rent?
Pick an answer. The reasoning for all four options opens here.
Keys: A–D or 1–4 to answer · N next · P previous
Income at 60% of AMI is $48,000; 30% of that is $14,400 a year, or $1,200 a month in gross housing cost, which includes utilities, so the rent the landlord may charge is $1,200 − $150 = $1,050. $1,200 forgets the utility allowance, $1,350 adds it instead of subtracting it, and $2,000 applies 30% to the full AMI.
A$1,350 adds the utility allowance to the housing cost instead of subtracting it.
BCorrect: 60% of $80,000 is $48,000; 30% of that is $1,200 a month, and subtracting the $150 utility allowance leaves $1,050.
C$1,200 is the gross housing cost; it forgets that utilities come out of that amount.
D$2,000 applies 30% to the full AMI instead of to 60% of AMI.
Plat summary
0 of 60 answered · 0 correct
Score by exam domain
District
Weight
Correct
Share
Fundamental Planning Knowledge
15%
0/0
Plan and Policy Development
15%
0/0
Communication and Interaction
13%
0/0
Areas of Practice
12%
0/0
Plan Implementation
12%
0/0
Research and Assessment Methods
11%
0/0
AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
10%
0/0
Administration and Management
6%
0/0
Leadership
6%
0/0
Answer a few lots and the weakest district shows up here, with where to read up on it.
Plat · 60 lots in 9 districts
Fundamentals9
Plan & policy9
Communication8
Practice areas7
Implementation7
Research6
Ethics6
Admin & mgmt4
Leadership4
open
correct
incorrect
on the card
How to use the 60-question plat review
The set above is a plat review: each question is a numbered lot in its domain’s district, and the map fills in as you answer. Take one honest pass, start to finish, before you open a study guide.
01
Commit before you look
Pick A–D, or press 1–4. The verdict is instant, so decide first; a lucky guess you could not defend still goes on your study list.
02
Read all four notes
Every option has its own note, not just the key. The wrong-option notes show the distractor families the exam reuses.
03
Filter by district on the second pass
The domain chips narrow the plat to one domain. Leave them alone the first time through, or your score stops being a sample of the whole outline.
04
Open the plat summary
Score so far shows your results district by district, with a link to what to study next. Restart clears the map.
AICP exam key facts
questions on exam day
170
150 scored, 20 unscored pretest items
seat time
3.5 h
at a Prometric center or by remote proctoring
content domains
9
current outline, December 2021
score type
Scaled
reported with a pass/fail result
per question
74 s
210 minutes ÷ 170, the pace to practice at
Scoring is where secondhand advice goes wrong most often. The exam reports a scaled score, and APA (the American Planning Association) does not publish a raw cut score, so any “you need X% correct” claim is guesswork. The 20 pretest items are unmarked: treat every question as if it counts.
Per APA’s 2026 certification guide, the score report arrives at the end of the session; if you do not pass, it breaks results down by domain, and you can retest up to three times a year, at least a month apart. Testing windows change yearly, so take dates from the key dates on planning.org.
Domain mix: this set against the outline weights
The 60 questions follow the nine domain weights of the current outline, rounded to whole questions. Every domain gets at least four, so no district score hangs on a single lot.
AICP practice test: questions per domain against the outline weight
AICP practice test: questions per domain against the outline weight
The 6% domains get four questions instead of 3.6. The outline weights domains only; there are no sub-topic weights.
How AICP questions are written: scenario and best-answer items
Every AICP question offers four options and one best answer. Recall items exist — a case, a year, an author — but much of the exam is judgment: a planning director, a commission, an applicant, and four things you could do next, sometimes as a set of three to five questions on one scenario.
Direct questions asking for the MOST appropriate action or the FIRST step.
Roman-numeral combinations: four statements, with options such as “I and III only”.
EXCEPT, LEAST and NOT items, always in capitals. Read them twice.
Calculations such as FAR, density, a location quotient or a critical path, with an on-screen calculator.
Usually the key
Gather the facts before choosing a remedy
Follow the adopted plan and the procedure that already exists
Disclose a conflict and step out of the review
Qualify firms (RFQ) before asking for proposals (RFP)
Usually a distractor
The boldest move: rezone the corridor, sue, call the press
A blanket moratorium where a targeted amendment would do
Overruled law offered as if it were current
An aspirational Code principle enforced as if it were a rule
Patterns, not laws of nature. Two options are often defensible; the key is the one a careful planner would choose next.
How to read the reasoning notes
Each question closes with an explanation of why the key is right — the case, year and holding, the 2022 Code provision in plain words, or the worked formula — and a note on every option naming the family each wrong answer came from:
Sibling cases
Mirror holdings get swapped: Nollan (1987, essential nexus) and Dolan (1994, rough proportionality); Belle Terre (1974) and Moore v. East Cleveland (1977).
Same-era people
Radburn (1929) was Clarence Stein and Henry Wright. Frank Lloyd Wright drew Broadacre City.
Near-miss numbers
The Housing Act of 1949 against 1954; ACS margins of error published at 90% confidence against a 95% interval you compute yourself.
Role swaps
A variance (unique hardship, decided by the board of adjustment) against a conditional use or a rezoning.
Your score by domain: what to study next
Press Score so far and the plat summary shows how you did in each district, with a link to the next thing to read: the domain guide where one exists, otherwise the study guide hub.
Mind the sample size: in a four-question district one miss costs 25 points, in a nine-question district about 11. A weak district is a direction to study, not a verdict, and a strong one is not proof you have it covered.
All nine domains, including those without their own guide yet.
How to use practice tests in your prep
01
Take it cold
Run all 60 once before any reading. The result is a baseline, and the district summary shows where your study time should bend.
02
Study by weight
Spend time roughly in proportion to the domain weights; the two 15% domains alone are close to a third of the exam. The exam prep page turns that into a week-by-week plan.
03
Drill the weak districts
Use the chips to re-run one domain after you study it. You will remember some answers by then, so the notes matter more than the second score.
04
Run it at exam pace
The exam allows 3.5 hours for 170 questions, about 74 seconds each, so the full set takes roughly 74 minutes. Format, scheduling and scoring are on the exam page.
FAQ
Are there free AICP practice tests?
Yes: this one, free with no sign-up — 60 questions, a note on every option and a score by domain. It runs in the page and there is no PDF version. APA has also published a short set of illustrative questions through its certification pages; use those for format.
Are these real AICP exam questions?
No. They are practice questions written to the current outline and checked against the 2022 Code of Ethics and current case law. Exam items are confidential, and no prep source has them.
What is a passing score on the AICP exam?
APA reports a scaled score with a pass/fail result and publishes no raw cut, so there is no percentage to hit on this test either. Read your 60-question score by district to rank domains, not to predict a pass.
How difficult is the AICP exam?
Broad rather than deep, with many scenario items where two answers are defensible. For your own odds, the useful measure is the plat summary at the end of this test: the districts where you miss more than you hit are where the exam will feel hard.
How long should I study for the AICP exam?
It depends on how much of the outline your work already covers: a planner who writes staff reports weekly may be strong on implementation and thin on history and law. Let your baseline district scores size the gap, then fit the prep plan to it.
Keep practicing past question 60
The app holds the rest of the question bank, sorted by the same nine domains, with the same note on every option.